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Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

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Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#41
> After accounting for indirect taxes and in-kind transfers, the US redistributes a greater share of national income to low-income groups than any European country. "Predistribution," not "redistribution," explains why Europe is less unequal than the United States.

But that's good, right?... Economists tend to say that if you want to solve a social problem, the least disruptive way of doing it is just giving them money. It usually has better outcomes and much less side effects than trying to contort the society into a complicated shape that fixes the same problem, and breaks a dozen invisible things in the process.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#43
I can't access anything other than the abstract so apologies if this is in the paper, but personally I think there's a few obvious factors. One is Christian social teaching as a foundation for a lot of the national corporatist models (Christsoziale Demokratie here in Germany for example), which has always underpinned both the major left and right wings of European politics.

Another factor is a somewhat greater level of homogeneity (i.e 'no Denmark without the Danes') although this seems overplayed usually for political reasons from the more extreme factions given that Europe's social model also seems to hold in recent times despite changing demographics.

Another factor, a little bit contradictory to the last one maybe, is I think also the diversity between individual European nations. There's lots of natural and linguistic borders that have prevented the sort of concentration you see in say, the US or China both politically as well as economically. A lot of the drivers of inequality in the US are incredibly concentrated corporate giants, which domestically in the EU wouldn't have much success.

A fourth factor I think is also the focus on white collar academic work in the US as well as Britain. In particular here in the German-speaking/adjacent sphere (Germany, Swiss, Northern Italy, also Benelux and parts of the East) there's a focus on grey-collar work and industry which provides what Daron Acemoglu labeled 'good jobs'. Middle class vocational professions that support a broad base of workers. The European South has traditionally lacked this and is markedly more unequal.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#44

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Citation needed for this assertion.

That's a weird challenge. What do you want a citation for? What he did was a political analysis. So while he could provide citations to political scientists who said similar things that wouldn't make the true necessarily. The "citation needed" only works if you want to assess the premises, so do you want a citation for racism being/having been more widespread or for Europe having had a antisemitism problem?

It was mostly an incoherent ramble. No single citation would've cleared it up anyway.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#46
post #23

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Yes. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legacy_preferences "almost three-quarters of research universities and nearly all liberal arts colleges grant legacy preferences in admissions" > by offering tuition loans I think you missed a qualifier. Tuition loans have always existed in the US. What happened a few decades ago was they became much harder to discharge through bankruptcy, thus shifting risk to the student.

What that "yes" an answer to the question of whether or not they're public institutions? Because I was unable to find anything in the link that pointed one way or the other. Though it did not that it may be illegal for public institutions to do so (which slightly implies that at least some are). Note that I'm not saying that public institutions don't do it; I was just curious about your answer and link.

Looks like "6 percent of public universities consider alumni relations in their admissions policies" - https://www.savingforcollege.com/article/legacy-admissions .

Quoting it: "Public universities that do consider alumni relations in their admissions process include Auburn University in Alabama, University of Michigan at Ann Arbor and University of Virginia"

Only recently has it been made illegal in some states. Colorado was the first: https://www.forbes.com/sites/susanadams/2021/06/01/legacy-ad... . The article mentions how Colorado School of Mines (a public school) had legacy admissions, and "found the legacy preference useful because the children of alums are the most likely to decide to attend once they are accepted."

My understanding appears to be out-of-date. That is, I could have sworn that my alma mater had legacy admissions, but that does not appear to be the case. It may have changed since I went to college.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#47
post #28

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Not every kid in Europe goes to uni though?

Very few of those who don't go to university are doing so for financial reasons. Not everyone needs a three-to-five-year academic education, but nobody should be blocked because of who their parents were.

Agree. The only thing that should be blocking them is their previous poor performance.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#48

I’m unconvinced that inequality matters. A better set of questions would be one like: how much does your parents (lack of) success predict your own? How likely are you to attain some arbitrary yet desirable standard of living, etc. Inequality is related to these things but doesn’t necessarily block them.

The answer to your question is in the US there is less economic mobility than most of its peer countries. https://www.brookings.edu/wp-content/uploads/2016/07/02_econ...

Economic mobility studies are interesting, but there's a fundamental issue with the way all of them look at things: they're measuring relative success, not absolute. Of course it's easier to move between deciles if the distribution of income is flat, but the net result of the movement also has less actual impact. It's also zero-sum: everyone moving up from the bottom decile has to be replaced by someone! Overall quality of life is the metric that should be optimized around, not economic mobility.

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#49

I’m unconvinced that inequality matters. A better set of questions would be one like: how much does your parents (lack of) success predict your own? How likely are you to attain some arbitrary yet desirable standard of living, etc. Inequality is related to these things but doesn’t necessarily block them.

Inequality has been found to cause crime, poor health, child poverty (ie something that prevents children from developing properly and reaching the same economic productivity as their peers), etc. Some effects are felt by the rich. For example, my options for a partner are limited to those of similar income due to inequality and a desire for a certain lifestyle (amount of cooking at home, amount of holidays etc)

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effects_of_economic_inequali...

Inequality is also correlated to children having the same income level as their parents.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Gatsby_curve

Re: Why Is Europe More Equal Than the United States?

#50
If compared to the US, isn't Europe spending significantly less on defense? I guess that Europe will spend more now. I think a big defense budget is a factor, the money spent on military hardware doesn't trickle down through the economy, as far as I know.
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