Earlier quoted context omitted.
That works for positive integer bases and exponents, but try giving an "intuitive proof" with irrational exponents. Most things in math, even seemingly obvious things in arithmetic, require a lot of shared background knowledge (at least propositional logic, basic set theory, and a construction of the natural numbers) for two people to even converse formally.
It still works with irrational exponents (start with fractional numbers and work towards that). It also works with imaginary exponents. It works because the power notation is short hand. But that wasn't the point of my reply. The point was that stating things multiple ways assists us in understanding. Does this not match your experience?
So why e^pi * e^e = e^(pi + e)? Yes, it follows from the fact that it works for rational numbers, but in order infer this, you'd need to prove the continuity of exponential function, which is nontrivial at best.
Of course, if you define a^x to be the unique continuous function f: R -> R, such that f(1) = a and f(a)f(b) = f(a+b), as soon as you proved the existence and uniqueness of this function, this follows straight from definition.
There are also different definitions of exponential functions, like exp(x) = lim n->inf (1+x/n)^n, or exp(x) = sum_{n=0}^inf x^n/n! . How easy it is to prove now that exp(pi)exp(e) = exp(pi+e) ?