No, it is not ambiguity of language. It says formally:
I have two children. There exists a child of mine who is (boy and born on tuesday).
And yes, the probability of the other child being a boy is 13/27.
To understand this, try a more extreme case:
When a child is born we generate a random number: rnd(1billion)
Now the man says:
'I have two children. There exists one of them which is boy with generated id=456765234'
As we can see, the probability of the other child being a boy approaches 1/2 as we increase the bound of our random number!
Why is this intuitively?
Because by using a very specific id we are closer and closer to specifying one of the boys, as the probability of the id not being unique decreases. We are closer and closer to saying this:
'Randomly pick one of my children. He is a boy. What is the probability of the other being a boy?'
Yes, that would be 1/2.
Edit.: Seriously downvoting this??? For most commenters the correct result was not intuitive. (It was not intuitive for me at first also). I tried to make this intuitive to them. (a bit deeper than usual paradxes though) Or do you still think the 13/27 result is not correct? In that case you are fighting mathematical truth with the downvote button.
Edit: Thanks, corrected probability from 2 to 1/2