Earlier quoted context omitted.
>Do they anesthesize the child in the other 10%? That answer is heavily nuanced and is likely difficult to answer. First, there's the likelihood that some of that 10% occurred very early in the second trimester but prior to the development of the ability to feel pain. One should also consider the circumstances of each specific abortion relative to whether or not they would feel pain. >EDIT: Answered my own question:…
> Lack of legal requirement does not mean a lack of anesthesia whatsoever in other states. I guess I was asking if anyone knew, because that article is the only thing I could find on it.
>The problem? Thorough reviews of medical evidence reject the idea that fetuses can actually feel pain at 20 weeks. They don't fully develop the proper neurological structures to feel pain until later, around 29 to 30 weeks in the third trimester.[1]
>The bigger problem? There's really no such thing as "fetal anesthesia" in standard medical practice. And the law doesn't specify how doctors are supposed to make it happen.[1]
So now, goalposts have shifted to pain not being present until 29+ weeks, which is the third trimester.
>Abortions at or after 21 weeks are uncommon, and represent 1% of all abortions in the US.[2]
Which means that the question you're asking pertains to likely less than 1% of abortions in the US, rather than 10%.
[1]https://www.vox.com/2016/3/30/11331414/utah-abortion-anesthe...
[2]https://www.kff.org/womens-health-policy/fact-sheet/abortion...