This is sheer nonsense from the jump. No it's not. The basic point that was being quoted (from the NYT comment piece) was quite sensible actually. The OP author then immediately falls into the semantic trap of "right to express oneself freely" == "First Amendment rights". They're not equivalent. They're overlapping and related obviously -- but nonetheless fundamentally different things. My expectations that there mig…
a) How it's possible, even hypothetically for citizens to simultaneously have both "the right to speak their minds and voice their opinions in public" and "without fear of being shamed or shunned". The two are contradictory.
b) How that superposition is "a fundamental right as citizens of a free country", which Americans once had but are losing.