I've read a few times that you can derive the Maxwell equations from knowing that U(1) exists, as this article implies, that every point in space has (among other things) the symmetry of a circle. But I've never seen this derivation. I assume it's either trivial or too complicated. Anyone has a link or thoughts on this?
I wrote an ELI25 explanation in a comment a few months ago, and I'll copy it here: In quantum mechanics the wave function Ψ is has complex values. If you multiply everything in the universe by -1, nothing changes because all the physical results use ΨΨ* (where * is the complex conjugation). You can also multiply everything by i or -i. Moreover by any other complex number of modulo 1 because ΨΨ* does not change. (The…
Typo or rhetoric?
A collectible, either way ;-)