Earlier quoted context omitted.
I suspect the dosing might explain the equivalence. I’ve not come across the study, but if the conclusion was “a 1/100th of the normal dose of cocaine is equivalent to 3 cups of coffee equivalent” I could believe that.
dosing usually would be dialed-in to provide roughly identical autonomic effects (at least) and then graded increased doses. otherwise it would be a pointless study. here is a very old one, but oral not i.v.: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/4900434/ 5mg/10mg amphetamine sulphate vs 300mg and 600mg of caffeine (all oral). The study scales ended up being skewed because one subject had paradoxical response and felt rela…
That happens to me and I want to research what it means but your link doesnt seem to work