Earlier quoted context omitted.
It measures the answer to the hypothetical question "If a another bank with good credit came to you right now to borrow (overnight/1W/1M/3M) in (USD/EUR/GBP/CHF/JPY) what rate would you offer them?" Which is a proxy for the banks' willingless to lend. (It had a less quoted counterpart, LIBID the London Interbank Bid Rate, where would you borrow at.)
ELI5 Why not simply measure the actual trading activity for exactly those activities the previous day?
The market - interbank rates - is quite small in terms of participants. I think the problem is the number was incredibly useful even if it wasn't accurate.