Earlier quoted context omitted.
My monetary economics professor in grad school was teaching a paper and told us that when the authors claim it's obvious, that means it's not obvious. So he wrote out the derivation over the weekend and gave us a four-page, single-spaced handout with all the equations behind that single "obvious" result.
This is way off topic but hopefully it will get allowed because I think you have the expertise to help: It seems to me that the widely accepted practice of market stimulation by interest rate intervention has the cost of destroying price discovery. Also, that it is a primary cause of wealth inequality. These relationships seem to me actually obvious: push down DCF denominators and valuations go up, inefficient busine…
Those claims deserve an explanation and empirical evidence.
Measuring price discovery itself is a bit awkward. You could say that poor quality price discovery would result in more price volatility, and that increased costs of price discovery would result in lower liquidity. Unfortunately, both of those things have many other causal factors. How would you untangle the causes to isolate the effects of interest rate intervention?
Making the leap to saying it's the primary cause of wealth inequality is absurd. So long as society uses a market economy, or allows any form of individual wealth aggregation, wealth is likely to follow a log-normal distribution.