The sea was never blue (2017) • Hacker News Board

Re: The sea was never blue (2017)

#11

Post by Stratoscope » Tue, Aug 03, 2021, 7:16 PM UTC

dhosek wrote: post #6

black6 wrote: post #2

Calvin: Dad, how come old photographs are black and white? Didn't they have color film back then? Dad: Sure they did. In fact, those old photographs ARE in color. It's just the WORLD was black and white then. Calvin: Really? Dad: Yep. The world didn't turn color until sometime in the 1930s, and it was pretty grainy color for a while, too. Calvin: That's really weird. Dad: Well, truth is stranger than fiction. Calvin:…

My greatest triumph as a parent is that I've had this actual conversation with my son. At the age of 7, he still believes this.

You should explain to him how they determine the load limit on bridges.

https://www.gocomics.com/calvinandhobbes/1986/11/26

Re: The sea was never blue (2017)

#12

Post by coldtea » Tue, Aug 03, 2021, 8:48 PM UTC

stevula wrote: post #10

avnigo wrote: post #8

Earlier quoted context omitted.

That makes me wonder whether "okeanos", Greek for 'ocean', is related kuaneos. I haven't been able to find the proper etymology of ocean.

To show an etymological connection requires more than just a superficial resemblance. You would need to explain where the "o" in o-keanos came from and why "-ua-" would change to "-ea-" in that environment but not in other environments. It looks like most sources guess that it's a loanword but there are a few other speculations given on Wiktionary: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%E1%BD%A8%CE%BA%CE%B5%CE%B1%C...

>where the "o" in o-keanos came from

That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered).

So o-kyanos would literally be "the cyan one".

(Not saying that's the etymology, but the "o" would be easy to explain).

As for the "y" changing to "e", similar changes happen all the time in ancient, hellenistic and medieval Greek for phonetic reasons (literally: just because it sounded better this way). It can also be the case that there were several variants in different city states, and the modern version is just the one that stuck.

Re: The sea was never blue (2017)

#13

Post by jhanschoo » Wed, Aug 04, 2021, 12:41 AM UTC

coldtea wrote: post #12

stevula wrote: post #10

Earlier quoted context omitted.

To show an etymological connection requires more than just a superficial resemblance. You would need to explain where the "o" in o-keanos came from and why "-ua-" would change to "-ea-" in that environment but not in other environments. It looks like most sources guess that it's a loanword but there are a few other speculations given on Wiktionary: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%E1%BD%A8%CE%BA%CE%B5%CE%B1%C...

> where the "o" in o-keanos came from That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered). So o-kyanos would literally be "the cyan one". (Not saying that's the etymology, but the "o" would be easy to explain). As for the "y" changing to "e", similar changes happen all the time in ancient, hellenistic and medieval Greek for phonetic reas…

> That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered).

Not really. There would need to be an explanation why ho -> ō in this case where no such change occurs in other words. As well as why it does not follow the model of οὗτος in declension.

Re: The sea was never blue (2017)

#14

Post by coldtea » Wed, Aug 04, 2021, 6:49 AM UTC

jhanschoo wrote: post #13

coldtea wrote: post #12

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> where the "o" in o-keanos came from That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered). So o-kyanos would literally be "the cyan one". (Not saying that's the etymology, but the "o" would be easy to explain). As for the "y" changing to "e", similar changes happen all the time in ancient, hellenistic and medieval Greek for phonetic reas…

> That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered). Not really. There would need to be an explanation why ho -> ō in this case where no such change occurs in other words. As well as why it does not follow the model of οὗτος in declension.

>As well as why it does not follow the model of οὗτος in declension.

Well, okeanos does follow the model of οὗτος in declension.