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How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

quantamagazine.org

51–60 of 356 posts

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#51
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Maybe this video by Veritasium could help: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kTXTPe3wahc

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#52

Earlier quoted context omitted.

A classical analogy for entanglement: suppose I have two balls in a bag. They are identical in every way, except one is red and the other is blue. I randomly grab one in each hand and show my hands closed. Now the states of the ball are entangled: as soon as you see the color of one ball, that "determines" the color of the other. (Not claiming that this is a perfect analogy, but I don't see where it diverges from how…

The problem with your classical analogy for entanglement is that it doesn't match the data. Or rather, it only matches the data for quantum properties that are similarly blue or red. The non-classical properties of entanglement start appearing once you start measuring combinations of the redness and blueness of those balls. Let's say that instead of looking at the balls, you pass them through some machine that will l…

Bell's inequality (as you allude to) describes how transformations on quantum wave functions cannot behave classically. But classical wave functions can certainly be entangled as entanglement is a property of a wave function, not transformations on wave functions.

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#53
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Let's say particles have a 'direction angle' that we can measure with a detector that only gives 'up' or 'down' relative to a direction angle measurement. We can change this direction angle measurement with a knob to set what the measured 'up' and 'down' answers are relative to the detector's direction angle. Further let's say particles can be quantum entangled so that when when two detectors are placed very far apart, many light years apart, say, and measure a quantum entangled pair of particles.

When the two detectors are set to the same, but arbitrary, angle, the detectors give the same answer. This is normal correlation. Quantum correlation says that as one dial moves away from the other reference point, the correlation falls off as a sine wave, not a linear decrease as would be expected by classic probability.

To see how bonkers this is, do the following experiment:

Set detector X to be at angle 0 and detector Y to give a 1% error rate. Call that 1% angle 'a'. So a sample experiment run might be:

    X(0):  0001000101001110...111010
    Y(a):  0011000101001110...111010
In the above, 1 could be an 'up' and 0 could be a 'down' detection, say. For concreteness, let's just say A and B ran 100 detections and there was one difference between them (giving 1% error), represented by the third differing bit in the above.

Now let let's change both X and Y by the same angle so the relative error rate between them is still 1%, this might give something like:

    X(a):  0011000001001110...111010
    Y(2a): 0011000101001110...111010
X and Y still have one difference in the above, but now with the 8th position changed. So far this is nothing unexpected from classical probability.

Now, we know that from X(0) to Y(a) there's one change, from X(a) to Y(2a) there's one change. Classic probability says that there can be at most two flipped bits from X(0) to Y(2a). Quantum mechanics predicts three.

To convince yourself, try making a list of bits such that there's one difference between X(0) and Y(a), one difference between X(a) and Y(2a) but three differences from X(0) to Y(2a). It's impossible and this is the heart of Bell's theorem.

Bell's theorem is a classical probability statement, generalized from my above statement that if |X(0)-Y(a)|=1, |X(a)-Y(2a)|=1 then |X(0)-Y(2a)|The 0 reference point has to be arbitrary (in the above it should really be X(ref_angle + a), Y(ref_angle + 2a), etc.) and you have to assume no faster than light communication (that is, independence) to get the contradiction. There are some further subtleties with the above argument but hopefully that's intuitive enough to follow why quantum entanglement is so counter intuitive.

EDIT: corrected X(a) bit string

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#54
post #34
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Imagine you have a pouch with a red and a blue marble in it, then take out a marble without looking at it and hand the pouch to a friend. Later, if you look at your marble, you instantly have information about the other marble at a speed greater than the speed of light... but you couldn't use that fact to send a message. The only difference in quantum physics is that there are actually two parallel universes: One in…

this seems a little fast and loose. you already had the information the instant you picked the marble, but you didn't observe it until later.

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#55
post #44
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

It can't be used to send a message because all you can do is measure your particle. Even if doing so changes the state of the other particle far away (which isn't really what's happening, but that doesn't matter), all the other person at the end can do is measure their particle. Neither of you can choose what the state of either particle is. You have no control, so there's no way to transmit information. What you can…

I now have to imagine that Quantum Game Theory is a thing that exists.

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#56
post #46

Earlier quoted context omitted.

A classical analogy for entanglement: suppose I have two balls in a bag. They are identical in every way, except one is red and the other is blue. I randomly grab one in each hand and show my hands closed. Now the states of the ball are entangled: as soon as you see the color of one ball, that "determines" the color of the other. (Not claiming that this is a perfect analogy, but I don't see where it diverges from how…

>They are identical in every way, except one is red and the other is blue. I randomly grab one in each hand and show my hands closed. Now the states of the ball are entangled: as soon as you see the color of one ball, that "determines" the color of the other. This gets used to explain entanglement but it really has absolutely nothing to do with it. This is nothing that the ancient Greeks wouldn't have known. Not to p…

> Rather, both balls are in a superposition of being both red and blue simultaneously, and it is not possible in principle to assign a color to either one of them until the moment a measurement is made.

I don't disagree, and (clearly) I make a measurement when I show you the color of a ball. Before I show you a ball, I would also say that the colors of the balls are in a superposition.

> major revolution in physics in order to understand that if there are two balls, one is blue and one is red, then if you see one of the balls is red, you can conclude the other ball is blue?

Entanglement is really just this simple — entanglement itself is a statement about a wave function, classical or quantum. The major revolution in physics is that transformations of the wave functions do not behave as we would classically expect. Entangled particles are a tool that we can use to measure those transformations (and get surprising results).

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#57
post #36
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Two balls are a box. Neither are spinning. The box gets “shaken up” and the balls hit each other. We know that one ball is spinning clockwise and the other is counter clockwise because angular momentum spin is conserved. The balls launch far away from each other. We know the spin is entangled in that one is clock wise the other is counter clockwise but we don’t know which is which until we measure. How do we use that…

By constraining all your communications to a game of interstellar rock paper scissors?

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#58
post #34
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Imagine you have a pouch with a red and a blue marble in it, then take out a marble without looking at it and hand the pouch to a friend. Later, if you look at your marble, you instantly have information about the other marble at a speed greater than the speed of light... but you couldn't use that fact to send a message. The only difference in quantum physics is that there are actually two parallel universes: One in…

This is incorrect. What you've described is classical correlation, not quantum correlation.

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#59
post #34
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Imagine you have a pouch with a red and a blue marble in it, then take out a marble without looking at it and hand the pouch to a friend. Later, if you look at your marble, you instantly have information about the other marble at a speed greater than the speed of light... but you couldn't use that fact to send a message. The only difference in quantum physics is that there are actually two parallel universes: One in…

I think your analogy works for both many worlds and Copenhagen. You can view each universe in your analogy as states in the wave function. The two interpretations diverge only when the "observation" occurs. In the Copanhagen interpretation the other universe disappears. In the many worlds interpretation they both remain.

Re: How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

#60
post #27

I'll never understand entanglement. Every explanation makes me wonder why it can't be used to instantaneously send a message. I never fully understand the explanations why it can't be used to do so. I don't understand how you can be sure about the state of the other particle, what if someone already measured it and then did something to it?

Look up how entanglement is done experimentally. It will always involve a technology which can be used to classically transmit information at a distance.

What happens in entanglement is that the two entangled objects receive say an entangled photon, it is at this point where the two objects are entangled.

Entanglement is a dance of the statistical limits and position of a particle/object given a specific space/energy configuration (initial condition). From this we know the probability of where it can be, what states it can assume, and the limits of both—given the energy it takes to traverse space and assume those states at once.

They are entangled because once information of the states of one of the entangled objects is measured (mainly by analyzing the exiting photon), we can apodictically discern the state of the other.

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