I like range voting (of which approval is a special case). It's simple, and it always takes everybody's point of view into account (it doesn't lose any voter information), which is a really nice property IMHO.
Yes, you can argue that the more extremely somebody puts the ranges, they have an advantage. (I would argue we should always normalize the cast vote so that most wanted candidate gets 100 and the least wanted 0, but then we take away people's ability to express only mild interest.) And through that, they can in certain cases manipulate the outcome.
I feel like we cannot really meaningfully say that there is a difference between "real" preferences and the "manipulated" ones. For example, this article (from my cursory reading) has a model how media (or others) convince somebody to vote for B when his "real" preference is A. But how can we claim that he truly didn't change his "real" preference to vote for B, based on the media discussion?
Ultimately, I find it somewhat patronizing to claim that, if the real preferences are (internally in humans) expressed on numerical scale 0-100, and we ask for the number from that numerical scale 0-100, this number can somehow not correspond to real preference. I think there is then a contradiction in the definition of "preference", because then the preference has to be something more complicated, like some condition based on other people's choice, not a simple internal value that is independent of what other people want.