> The original Constitution says that our “unalienable rights” are a result not of secular rationalism, but rather an omnipotent God who endows us with those rights. No, it doesn’t. The author confuses apropaganda document (the Declaration of Independence, which still doesn’t make this specific claim—it does reference rights being endowed by a Creator, but does not specifically attribute omnipotence to that Creator)…
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That’s also in the Declaration, not the Constitution, and also does not include the author’s description of omnipotence.
> Like I said, most of the commentators aren't even from America.
That’s...both unsupported and a particularly bizarre ad hominem, but I am an American (and, probably more relevant, have a degree in political science with a course of study focussed on the American system), but its not like the main problem claims about the US system here require particular expertise beyond, you know, reading the readily-available text of foundational documents.
> But they sure are commenting like they were.
I’m not sure what “commenting like they were [Americans]” means in this context.