Earlier quoted context omitted.
You might want to define unfree markets because American lives with regards to some key metrics seemed to improve more notably when it's markets were comparatively less free in the post ww2 era and china is also doing quite well and manage to get trough the 2008 financial crisis unscathed with it's application of Keynesian economics compared to US/EU.
What a free market is is pretty well known, and an unfree one would significantly deviate from that.
So was the US back then a free market in this binary state of markets?