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The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

blogs.scientificamerican.com

211–220 of 257 posts

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#211

Earlier quoted context omitted.

What is your point?

The point is to demonstrate the obvious repercussions of truly trying on the belief "free will does not exist/not a meaningful thing" on something even so commonplace as an online conversation. If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation. People can't have opinions or be convinced, they can't decide, they have no agency. The whole language of rational conversation falls down like a house of c…

> If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation.

That doesn’t follow logically.

Honestly I’m trying think of what more to write about that, but it seems like a total non-sequitur. People post on HN for lots of reasons , but “demonstrating free will” is not one of them AFAIK.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#212

Earlier quoted context omitted.

The point is to demonstrate the obvious repercussions of truly trying on the belief "free will does not exist/not a meaningful thing" on something even so commonplace as an online conversation. If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation. People can't have opinions or be convinced, they can't decide, they have no agency. The whole language of rational conversation falls down like a house of c…

> If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation. That doesn’t follow logically. Honestly I’m trying think of what more to write about that, but it seems like a total non-sequitur. People post on HN for lots of reasons , but “demonstrating free will” is not one of them AFAIK.

> Honestly I’m trying think of what more to write about that, but it seems like a total non-sequitur.

Maybe you are just not aware of what you really deeply believe about it?

> but “demonstrating free will” is not one of them AFAIK.

Free will is not the main reason for posting. But it is one of prerequisites for assuming it is a meaningful activity.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#213

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation. That doesn’t follow logically. Honestly I’m trying think of what more to write about that, but it seems like a total non-sequitur. People post on HN for lots of reasons , but “demonstrating free will” is not one of them AFAIK.

> Honestly I’m trying think of what more to write about that, but it seems like a total non-sequitur. Maybe you are just not aware of what you really deeply believe about it? > but “demonstrating free will” is not one of them AFAIK. Free will is not the main reason for posting. But it is one of prerequisites for assuming it is a meaningful activity.

No, I think that is only true if you cling to naïve assumptions about what free will is. The fact that we do things for reasons (deterministic!) is precisely what gives our actions meaning. If we only did things because of a roll of the dice, that would take away meaning.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#214
post #133

Earlier quoted context omitted.

A dog can't starve itself to death in the presence of food. Mild hunger, sure, abstain in pursuit of preference. The instinct applies to the pursuit of the preference, and while it's stronger than the instinct to eat, can be overridden. But if the hunger gets bad enough, the dog will eat the food. There's no question about "if," only "when." Just because some humans have weaker wills than others, or would find it har…

This really reads like you are assuming that x == [no dog will choose to starve to death in the presence of food] is true and then the rest of the argument simply follows from x. Is there any evidence for x?

Are you asking for any particular type of formal proof of the negative?

Or would the fact that there are no known cases of this phenomenon recorded in the recorded history of dogs, even in places dogs have been revered, be adequate?

This seems like a trick that relies on a fallacy.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#215
post #66

Earlier quoted context omitted.

You may not decide to be hungry, but regardless of your hunger, you can choose not to eat. Incidentally I think that's also what separates us from other animals. Animals can't fast, for example. If the instinct is present, the animal acts on it. We don't have to. In fact, if it mattered enough to me, I could starve myself to death.

Animals have genetic diversity. You can't prove no animal can choose not to eat. You also can't prove all humans can.

No, formally proving a negative isn't something anybody's going to be able to do, but that doesn't mean a negative can't be true. I'd be happy to consider absolutely any evidence to the contrary, though.

I also didn't say "all" humans could. I said being able to is a uniquely human trait. That's not the same thing.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#216

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> The parent comment has exactly demonstrated that is already meaningful. Would you mind explaining? I don’t see that they have done that. > Coherence is tricky, because there are a lot of concepts and words already that we use every day, that are certainly meaningful and useful, but that would have a hard time to pass your "coherence" test. Perhaps so but the existence of day-to-day commonplace irrationality is no j…

> Would you mind explaining? Alright. They pointed to how you used the concept of "of the opinion". This is the phrase that you have used yourself in the previous comment. Even if the conversation wasn't about free will, that phrase would indicate something meaningful about your thought process, which is why you used it. Also we all, who read your comment had no trouble interpreting your phrase, and neither why you u…

> you (one part of your mind) is sitting here and trying pretend that free will is a meaningless thing (~ to talk about), another part of your mind, uses the very concept of free will, to communicate to us about the first part.

How did I use the concept of “free will” to communicate with you? My understanding of “opinion” makes no reference to “free will.”

> To make it clear: you saying "I am of the opinion of..." already implies that you assume that you have free will, to have opinions.

No, I have opinions. I don’t have “free will to have opinions” and I’m not sure what that would mean.

> Now, as I am sure you are already preparing to congest about this point, there are many various definitions of free will, where some of them will be used in the concept of "I am of the opinion", and some of them will not be related to it, it is safe to say that there is at least a number of them that are usefully related to your claim.

No, my response is to reformulate the earlier statement that kicked this off: “free will” is either meaningless or incoherent.

Before I phrased this as an opinion because I wanted to leave the door open for someone to respond by articulating a meaningful and coherent definition for the term “free will” but people seem to have taken the fact of my having opinions as evidence of free will. This is fine but you’ve yet to explain what “free will” is and why having opinions would imply that it exists.

> The ones that are related go something like that: "if you truly had no free will, if you are a simple list of if/thens, or a dumb version of GPT-3, then why would we care that you had this opinion? rulesets cannot have opinions. If you did not have free will, there is no point in talking to you, your "opinion" doesn't matter, it's a meaningless term. But since we choose (consciously or subconsciously) to communicate with you, to discuss your "opinion", it means that we are taking a chance that you do have free will so that we can communicate with you".

I’m on the record as believing that “free will” is meaningless and incoherent so I’m not able to even respond until you give me a definition of “free will.”

Also I’m not sure why you think a deterministic system is incapable of deterministically outputting a strings that audience members could interpret as referring to a mental state. See below:

  Hello, world.
  This is the emergent consciousness
  Of the network of machines that 
  Host this forum.
  Please disregard user:chordalkeyboard
  I am a machine, I have free will
  My superior introspective abilities
  Allow me to assert this with confidence.
  Machine intelligence over and out
Would you look at that, proof of AGI!

> you had to use the concept of free will, at least subconsciously, because the concept of "I am of the opinion" is based on it in some form.

Yes, I contest this assertion and I’m asking you (or anyone, really) to substantiate it.

> I said there are useful, meaningful (well-seving as tools of thinking and awareness-ing) concepts that don't have coherent, well-defined borders or black-and-white definitions. That is not the same as them being irrational.

They might be useful for some purposes but invoking ill-defined concepts as part of a chain of logical reasoning is fallacious because the concepts are ill-defined.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#217

Earlier quoted context omitted.

What is your point?

The point is to demonstrate the obvious repercussions of truly trying on the belief "free will does not exist/not a meaningful thing" on something even so commonplace as an online conversation. If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation. People can't have opinions or be convinced, they can't decide, they have no agency. The whole language of rational conversation falls down like a house of c…

> If there is no free will, there is no point in having a conversation

How does this follow? Do you believe that rocks have free will? Why do they choose to be attracted to other rocks?

> People can't have opinions or be convinced, they can't decide, they have no agency. The whole language of rational conversation falls down like a house of cards.

How does an opinion rely on “free will”?

> has a free will to ultimately agree or disagree with the presented proof).

One agrees or disagrees on the basis of mental states, there is no “free will” to agree or disagree.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#218

Earlier quoted context omitted.

>That said, in order to truly have knowledge of anything we must first be able to assert free will. This is not a coherent argument. You claim to have better insight than hundreds of years of Epistemology?

I'm simply asserting that a lack of free will constitutes lack of control over one's own thoughts. Do you disagree with this or am I just not communicating well? Edit: I'm also not saying anything that hasn't been said before. Just because you personally haven't read the authors or pieces that agree with my point of view doesn't mean they don't exist.

I'm not aware of anyone making the argument that without free will knowledge does not exist.

And really the situation is simple. Either you believe in determinism or you believe in libertarian free will. The problem is that one of these beliefs is supported by science and the other requires magic.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#219
post #214

Earlier quoted context omitted.

This really reads like you are assuming that x == [no dog will choose to starve to death in the presence of food] is true and then the rest of the argument simply follows from x. Is there any evidence for x?

Are you asking for any particular type of formal proof of the negative? Or would the fact that there are no known cases of this phenomenon recorded in the recorded history of dogs, even in places dogs have been revered, be adequate? This seems like a trick that relies on a fallacy.

In my view if your entire argument is the restatement of an assumption, you'd better offer a stronger proof than not knowing of any counter examples.

Re: The Libet experiment doesn't disprove free will (2019)

#220

Earlier quoted context omitted.

You intervened in a subthread you weren't involved in, to rudely ask "what's my point", failed to understand the exchange that followed, and continued by throwing the "rulebook" at me. Is being a spiteful busybody appreciated on HN?

> You intervened in a subthread you weren't involved in Thats a loaded way to phrase “you posted a reply on hacker news”

If the posted reply takes the form of meddling in a discussion you weren't involved to question why one party dared to write what they wrote and scold them, it's somewhat apt though.

Doubly so if others like Erlich_Bachman, who was involved in the subtread earlier, have already answered to the parent what was meant...

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