This is only tangentially on topic, but I genuinely wonder about this. When people state that they want the wealthy to pay their fair share, the first two questions I have are, what constitutes wealthy and what constitutes fair? Let's take a specific person as an example of wealthy (let me know if you don't agree), and I'd be grateful to hear your thoughts: Wealthy Person X: - CEO, 55 years old, University of Illinoi…
>put self through college working >Works 60 hour weeks, most Saturdays, some Sundays ... I don't give a damn about the 'pull yourself up by your bootstraps and work hard' virtue signaling. Half. He should pay half. So should everyone else above 400k / yr. The rich are able to succeed by virtue of the fact that we have schools, roads, other infrastructure. If you're in the top 1% of income, you should pay in the top 1…
* Person 2: income $400k per year lives in TX * spends $700 - 800k on an equivalent or better home * spends an average of $12 - 15 per meal per person * can spend $10 per hour on child care workers because of minimum wage laws * spends 0% on state income tax * spends a 6 - 7% on all goods purchased on sales tax
Ignoring things like what the specific min wage levels should be, etc, etc, is cost of living something that should show up in "fair tax" owed?
If the answer is no... I have a hard time seeing how any specific tax level could be considered fair (even after the argument of "well people should just move to another state").
If the answer is yes, then I have a hard time imagining how any federal income tax system could achieve the goal of "fairness".
And perhaps getting rid of the income tax altogether (perhpas replaced by Universal or partial BI + national sales tax as one idea) would result in a much faire / progressive system.