> The study compared countries that passed tax cuts in a specific year, such as the U.S. in 1982 when President Ronald Reagan slashed taxes on the wealthy, with those that didn't, and then examined their economic outcomes. All of these studies consistently miss one thing. Effective tax rates haven't really changed since before Reagan. Prior to Reagan, the tax code was riddled with loopholes. Not like how it is now wh…
They did a third thing which was to make the tax system more regressive. That was by deliberate design: there is a specific argument for it going back to Burke at least. I strongly disagree with it but I understand the argument.
Here's the effective rate table going back to before Regan:
https://www.taxpolicycenter.org/statistics/historical-averag...
Not exactly huge differences before and after. And compare the recent effective rates to the ones at the start of the table. About the same for the top quintile, significantly lower for all the others. So we should be seeing a reduction in wealth inequality then, right? Or at worst it should stay the same, so why are we seeing the opposite?
Obviously this doesn't prove that the thing that hasn't actually been tried would actually help, but it does point to the idea that maybe the problem lies somewhere else entirely. For example, lack of effective antitrust enforcement.