Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Your statement contradicts itself. If in fact the oppressors are targeting both white and black people to maintain power, then they are by definition not targeting only one race and would instead be classist/elitist. Elites don't promote racism because they're racists, they promote racism because it's a mechanism of control. Racism as a theory is pseudoscience bullshit. There is no scientific basis for race even ex…
"Elites don't promote racism because they're racists, they promote racism because it's a mechanism of control." That may be true, but the policy we were discussing (property tax funding education as an example of 'every policy being racist') affects large portions of both whites and minorities, and thus does not make it a racist. "Elites get the proles fighting each other and each coalition starts demanding aversaria…
Affecting large portions of both whites and minorities hasn't generally prevented anything from being labeled racist, if they affect minorities differently than white people (as a whole, not a specific subset).
And voter literacy requirements continue to be of the same kind. You can argue that neither is bad because neither is really racist, but then you can have voter literacy requirements. You can argue that both are bad because both are racist, but then you can't have public schools funded by property tax, or even public schools at all, because after all we're talking about avoiding things over their historical implementations even if other implementations are possible.
What I haven't seen is a consistent case that you can have one and can't have the other.
> If that's your premise, then your position is moot. This is happening already.
Are you implying that it happening has had nothing to do with the inflammation of racial tensions by elites and media organizations?