Earlier quoted context omitted.
S/he is asking you, in reply, why it is OK for some people to get better purchasing power for the same economic contribution.
The purchasing power is the property of the money received, it is exactly the same in all cases. If the problem is that we want to ensure some kind of equality of outcome that is ill posed 1. Companies are not arbiters to define what that outcome should be. In fact, any such attempt boils down to the argument that the current status quo is the natural state of things and everything should stay that way. Trying to com…
That's nonsensical. You can trivially find examples of where the same goods cost different prices in different locations.
Here's a really simple example. $5.79 will buy you a McDonald's Sausage Egg McMuffin meal in Montgomery AL. The same menu item is $6.71 in Los Angeles CA.
The same money has less power to buy goods and services in Los Angeles than it does in Montgomery. You know this intuitively; the same way you know that a gallon of milk is more expensive in New York City than it is in Madison.
I don't know why you're tying yourself up in knots to come to the opposite conclusion.