Earlier quoted context omitted.
Please re-read all of my comments with the fresh understanding (though it really shouldn't be as this was obvious from context and even explicitly stated) that I'm not talking about child-rearing. I'm talking about the pre/perinatal period when I am talking about a loss in productivity that women face by necessity due to biological reality.
I realise that you're now being deliberately obtuse but still; what is parental leave if not child-rearing? The biological part is a couple of weeks, child-rearing that parental leave is a part of is for at least 12 months until daycare can take over. Fathers can and should do that as well. So in the end the amount of time away from work should be the roughly equal. So once again, if this sums up to equal portions aw…
> Please let me know why this statement isn't true:
>> To assume that men need not take part in child-rearing before the child is ready for daycare is a sexist assumption.
This can be answered quite simply with: that statement is in fact true. Not sure why you feel like I should answer such a question, as I haven't implied anything like that.