Earlier quoted context omitted.
Fair enough; we're using 'leverage' differently. I didn't realize it had a formal economic definition. Never the less, my point stands: that employers can afford to wait for a given worker's labor prices to come down to the market price for their labor is affirmative evidence that the labor market is free whereas the OP considers this evidence that the labor market is unfree.
> employers can afford to wait for a given worker's labor prices to come down to the market price for their labor That seriously underestimates the cost of a business being idle. Ample evidence for that is the devastation wreaked on businesses from the recent lockdowns.
Individually, with any positive level of unemployment, any one worker's nonparticipation is mooted by a ready waiting pool of available workers. Eventually the hold-out gets hungry. Or starves.
Blacklists operate similarly: businesses can afford the exclusion, the (unorganised) excluded cannot.
[I]n every part of Europe, twenty workmen serve under a master for one that is independent... What are the common wages of labour, depends everywhere upon the contract usually made between those two parties, whose interests are by no means the same. The workmen desire to get as much, the masters to give as little as possible. The former are disposed to combine in order to raise, the latter in order to lower the wages of labour.
It is not, however, difficult to foresee which of the two parties must, upon all ordinary occasions, have the advantage in the dispute, and force the other into a compliance with their terms. The masters, being fewer in number, can combine much more easily; and the law, besides, authorizes, or at least does not prohibit their combinations, while it prohibits those of the workmen....
-- Adam Smith, Wealth of Nations, 1776
https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/The_Wealth_of_Nations/Book_I/...