Earlier quoted context omitted.
> I'm not aware of any definition of "free market" which supposes that all players have equal leverage. bog standard microeconomics 101 uses as an assumption that no player can thru individual choices affect prices in the market, i.e. all players do have equal leverage, zero. "free market" has more than one usage, but economics's conclusions are valid only if the assumptions are met.
Fair enough; we're using 'leverage' differently. I didn't realize it had a formal economic definition. Never the less, my point stands: that employers can afford to wait for a given worker's labor prices to come down to the market price for their labor is affirmative evidence that the labor market is free whereas the OP considers this evidence that the labor market is unfree.
> employers can afford to wait for a given worker's labor prices to come down
So employers can wait.
> is affirmative evidence that the labor market is free
For employers.
> whereas the OP considers this evidence that the labor market is unfree
For employees - they can't wait (that much), see above.