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Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

marilynburnsmathblog.com

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Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#21
post #14
post #7

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I think x(3) would more commonly mean x times 3. f(3) would be function application. Even more context dependence.

Right. Of course, if you write x(3), other mathematicians should frown at you because you're making bad notational choices. It's a bit like explaining to students that the real way to know which 3rd declension nouns are i-stems in Latin is to say the genitive plural both ways. The one that doesn't sound wrong is correct. But you have to have a lot of time in the language for that to work.

Well unnecessary parentheses are often used to indicate a substitution has happened. E.g. in a topic I just taught I would write things like ∫_{y=0}^3 x dy = [xy]_{y=0}^3 = x(3) - x(0) = 3x. In context I think it's perfectly clear and a good notational choice.

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#23
post #21
post #14

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Right. Of course, if you write x(3), other mathematicians should frown at you because you're making bad notational choices. It's a bit like explaining to students that the real way to know which 3rd declension nouns are i-stems in Latin is to say the genitive plural both ways. The one that doesn't sound wrong is correct. But you have to have a lot of time in the language for that to work.

Well unnecessary parentheses are often used to indicate a substitution has happened. E.g. in a topic I just taught I would write things like ∫_{y=0}^3 x dy = [xy]_{y=0}^3 = x(3) - x(0) = 3x. In context I think it's perfectly clear and a good notational choice.

And so it is.

edit: I suppose, what I'm trying to get at, perhaps too glibly, is that audience matters terribly much in mathematical writing. In the same way that Latin students don't start with Tacitus or Sallust, famous for their idiosyncratic grammar, math students shouldn't jump into the full context-dependent mess of the notation that experienced mathematicians use.

But I think we often thrown them in unintentionally because we're so used to it.

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#24
I can't imagine doing this to a class of fourth graders but I don't think her thinking is wrong. I think the correct way to views maths notation is that it's a language and we should treat people using it "incorrectly" as a grammar mistake and try to understand the idea they're trying to express.

The fourth grader is saying "1/3 + 1/3 = 2/6" but the idea she's trying to get across is that "avg(1/3,1/3) = 1/3 but the size of the whole has doubled."

It's hard when the language required to express the ideas they're having is just a little to advanced. And nothing about this stops when you get older. The "just a little outside your knowledge" keeps stretching on forever.

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#25
post #7
post #4

This is a lovely (edit: having been in similar shoes, also terrifying-in-the-moment) example of a broader problem in teaching mathematics: the language we use to describe mathematical reasoning is a natural language, like English or Latin, and therefore full of the sorts of bizarre irregularities you'd find in a natural language. Mathematics is also a language about rigorously and precisely defined objects. The conce…

I think x(3) would more commonly mean x times 3. f(3) would be function application. Even more context dependence.

I'm sure some would take it that way as "x" isn't commonly used in mathematical notation as a function name, the norm is to use f, g, etc.

However, the notation is relatively clear notwithstanding. It almost has to be x as a function with an input of 3.

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#26
post #2

I guess you'd have to come up with a way to explain that adding numbers (which is what you're doing with 1/3 + 1/3) is not the same as combining/averaging fractions, i.e. when you're totaling subgroups into a larger group. It's almost like we need a different "combining" operator for the latter that means to add both the numerator and denominator, because + isn't right for this. Now that I think about it, I'm surpris…

Someone in the comments makes a good point that the best thing to do here may be to introduce ratio notation for proportions (e.g. 2:4) which CAN be added/combined according to the kids’ intuitions — 1:2 combined with 1:2 does indeed equal 2:4, which reduces back to 1:2. You could then teach how to go from ratios to fractions by adding the ratio sides together and putting that in the denominator for each side... poof…

Yeah that's a good approach. The problem remains though that if you use the + operator on ratios you're still overloading it to mean something different in a way that doesn't retain its meaning when you start expressing things as fractions instead. So 1:2 + 1:2 works, but 1/3 + 1/3 doesn't. I think you still want a different operator for this. Maybe ⊕ or ⋃ or ⋓ ? I'm just spitballing here. There's definitely enough options in Unicode that an existing operator should be suitable for this purpose: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_operators_and_sym...

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#28
This is a great example of the downside of over-relying on metaphors and analogies to teach mathematical concepts. The reality is that fractions are not like groups of pencils or tables of girls and boys. They are rigorously defined mathematical constructs that occasionally can be mapped to real-world things (and usually with severe constraints). 1/3 + 1/3 isn't 2/6 because it doesn't follow from the underlying axioms that define rational numbers - and not because of anything else.

Re: Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so

#29
post #18
post #4

This is a lovely (edit: having been in similar shoes, also terrifying-in-the-moment) example of a broader problem in teaching mathematics: the language we use to describe mathematical reasoning is a natural language, like English or Latin, and therefore full of the sorts of bizarre irregularities you'd find in a natural language. Mathematics is also a language about rigorously and precisely defined objects. The conce…

> x^{-1} means \frac{1}{x}, but f^{-1}(x) doesn't mean \frac{1}{f(x)}. That notation for inverse functions is truly appalling. I don't know how the first mathematician to think of that didn't immediately discard it as nonsensical and misleading.

> I don't know how the first mathematician to think of that didn't immediately discard it as nonsensical and misleading.

Maybe they did.

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