A definition of how the aggregate would look, and explanation on why lesions have predictable results in every brain, as pure annealing based process would produce amorphous results. Why brains are similar in structure?
This model just does not deal well with lesions. After all, a lesion would be even stronger of a change than normal processes or psychedelics, causing the annealing to revert locally while it is healing. We do not observe this "untraining" behavior caused by healed neural lesions as per experiments on quadriplegic rats that get spinal therapy. They need next to no rehabilitation to run again.
Likewise, existence of phantom pain phenomenon is counterevidence - and why it just cannot be simply untrained.
Yes, I literally poked a hole through this idea. If it actually ever produces working results, then it should be able to fix phantom pain.
Likewise, single seizures would cause permanent changes in personality or skill as aftereffects, which is not observed.
Whereas repeated ones do, but still not exactly with permanent effects.
How does this model explain the difference? The applied "energy" is the same...
However epileptics rarely show similar effects, even if they also suffer Grand Mal seizures. Why the difference?
Why do mood disorders show up most often in adolescence and say not later? How does this model explain age related dementia? Why only certain anesthetics cause mental problems? (Or sometimes cure, e.g. ketamine.) Etc.
The model perhaps works partially in a normally functioning brain, but does not help us understand at all how memory is formed or why is it located mostly in hippocampus. Why cerebellum handles balance and movement, why there is another cortical movement handling?
"An attractor forms" begs the question of "why" or "why in this form", which this theory cannot answer. (Especially why these structures are mostly already formed in utero, but still need additional training.)
Whereas developmental neuroscience based on proper hormonal basis can. (Up to a point, it's quite new.)
The whole thing is a logical (as in high level) explanation based on no biological basis. It lacks the complete causation chain for how psychedelics operate and why every one of them produces different results.
Most importantly, an underlying chemical based model would produce identical results as the neurons themselves change permanently in response. (See: neuronal memory allocation mechanisms.) We just do not understand all the neurochemistry related to specific chemicals. Likewise how psychedelics and induced seizures are related. They are, but not entirely and any useful model would explain the difference rather than cover it up.
Neuroplasticity is being studied, a simplistic model of "annealing" is not helping in understanding - whereas results relating to say biology of cell given specific inputs are. (E.g. LTP and its relation to CREB and thus other neurochemistry. Synaptogenesis and axonal chemotaxis. More... That get activated during normal and abnormal operation.)