This seems like a good place to ask the question: how is it that we're seeing $15T of bonds worldwide trading with negative yields? [1] TFA suggests this is due to structural factors--institutions that are required by law to own AA/AAA bonds. Is this some deficiency in the law or corporate governance, that cash in this circumstance isn't considered a substitute for a negative-yield bond? Its net present value would b…
We've been on a 10 year run of growing economies after the Great Recession and stocks/equities have price-to-earning (P/E) ratios that are really high—as high as what they often were before other corrections and/or recessions:
* https://www.macrotrends.net/2577/sp-500-pe-ratio-price-to-ea...
* https://www.starcapital.de/en/research/stock-market-valuatio...
> Here’s the price-earnings ratio for the S&P 500 since World War II. Right now it’s hovering a little above 25. In the past three decades, it has never reached that point without leading quickly to either a deep correction or a full-blown recession.
* https://www.motherjones.com/kevin-drum/2017/12/raw-data-the-...
So people are worried about equities and "running to safety" of bonds. But there is a lot of demand for bonds, but only a limited supply: when governments tend go to the market and ask for money, usually private investors ask "what are you willing to pay me for the use of my money?". And private investors get a positive return.
But now it's the opposite: private investors are saying "I'm so worried about my money that I am willing to pay you, the government, to hold onto it". And so private investors get a negative return—because they're worried having the money in (stock) market could be worse than a predictable negative rate from a government.
Between the Summer 2007 and November 2008 the S&P 500 dropped by (IIRC) >40% during the fiscal crisis before the Great Recession: a bond "returning" -1% isn't too bad in comparison.