This will be controversial, but this is true everytime there is a pitchfork-inducing "the rich got richer in 20XX" thread. But it's not that the rich stole from the poor in order to become richer (though undoubtedly people will argue this). If I stick a million dollars in an index fund and passively get richer, am I stealing from the poor? Wealth is not zero sum, yet we seem to treat it like it is (in order for poor…
Say the top 1% increase their proportion of wealth from 20% to 40% of the money supply. Since there's only a finite amount of stuff to buy (productivity), this means the rich can also buy a proportionally bigger amount of stuff. Now, yes, this money gets in the hands of whoever is selling but in our current world this is increasingly also the rich. They're slowly buying up all real estate, companies, securities etc.…
yes, the money supply and real productivity are disconnected from each other, but it's hard to imagine such a huge change in control of the money supply over a period where real productivity is held constant.
> It's not entirely zero sum, some investments increase productivity and thus create actual wealth. Unfortunately investment in stocks and real estate don't increase productivity at all while rent-seeking only directs an ever increasing proportion of available wealth towards rich people.
if there are some investments that increase productivity, but they aren't stocks or real estate, what investments do increase productivity?