Earlier quoted context omitted.
Is there a jurisdiction that treats ownership and permission to do something as the same thing?
You mean in the "possession is 9/10ths of the law" sense?
If yes, then no, that is not what I meant, although I think I see what you are getting at.
What I meant was, "Is there a jurisdiction where a company cannot license (permit) access to data contigent on prior assent to an agreement with conditions on use, duration of use, transfer, etc. such that the licensee does not get the same rights as the owner of the data?"