21–26 of 26 posts
However oppressive the Prussian Partition could have been, they did recognize the law, in this case at least. Under communism Drzymała wouldn't be unlikely to get threatened, beaten up or even killed by "unknown perpetrators" (secret police).
Prussia respected the slave permissions one had - hardly an excuse
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No, at least not in Standard Polish. There are three voiced sibilant affricates in Polish: d͡z, (alveolar) d͡ʐ, (retroflex) and d͡ʑ (palatal.) The sound of rz and ż is indeed always a voiced (laminar) retroflex sibilant, but and here's the important distinction, following a consonant, ż forms an affricate (the middle one above) but rz does not; instead they remain as 2 separate phonemes (again, dialectal variations m…
Although there are exceptions to it, eg. "budżet" (or budget) is typically pronounced as if it were spelled "budrzet", apparently owing to the French origin of the word.
why is this here? as a pole I don't understand what's the connection between this and hackernews?
I may be under-thinking this, but getting a mobile house and moving it every 24 hours to peacefully circumvent "hostile" legislation against building houses, seems like a good hack.
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Although there are exceptions to it, eg. "budżet" (or budget) is typically pronounced as if it were spelled "budrzet", apparently owing to the French origin of the word.
Hi. I'm Pole. "Budżet" is pronounced with both short and long ż, depending on person and region. In most regions of Poland there is no correlation between written ż/rz and its pronounciation. This is one of the pains every polish kid has to go through and we just have to learn arbitrary rules and exceptions to where we write ż an where rz as there is no help from pronounciation. Same goes for u/ó and h/ch which also…
As a Pole too, I'd be against it. There may be no difference in pronunciation, but the spelling is still linked to the grammar and origin of the word.
Eg. while "każe" and "karze" may be pronounced the same, the spelling clearly implies that the former one is a form of "kazać", while the latter is conjugated "karać". It's neither arbitrary nor unnecessary - it's perfectly logical and it conveys actual information.
Eradicating the difference would obfuscate the underlying links and structure completely, and I'm not sure whether it would really make learning easier in the long run. Simplification for the sake of simplification is a lossful process.
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Hi. I'm Pole. "Budżet" is pronounced with both short and long ż, depending on person and region. In most regions of Poland there is no correlation between written ż/rz and its pronounciation. This is one of the pains every polish kid has to go through and we just have to learn arbitrary rules and exceptions to where we write ż an where rz as there is no help from pronounciation. Same goes for u/ó and h/ch which also…
> There is a movement to completely eradicate these different forms to make the language a little bit easier, especially for kids. As a Pole too, I'd be against it. There may be no difference in pronunciation, but the spelling is still linked to the grammar and origin of the word. Eg. while "każe" and "karze" may be pronounced the same, the spelling clearly implies that the former one is a form of "kazać", while the…
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I’m still learning Polish, but aren’t ‘rz’ and ‘ż’ pronounced exactly the same?
Although @admitrov gave you a nice, long answer that may be correct (I'm no linguist), as a native Pole never in my life have I heard a difference between rz and ż. Same with ó and u, as well as ch and h . If there really* was a difference, native speakers wouldn't have so much trouble with ortography. *ch and h have historically been two different consonants but have gotten washed down into one.