I'm picking through the author's paper and I don't buy this conclusion. I have a bone to pick with his evidence: for example, he makes a comparison between "willingness to expend time to drive to obtain an accidentally left behind unused, new-condition notebook (vs. willingness to expend driving time to obtain a new notebook at no financial cost)". The extent of the former he denotes as WTP-Retain and the latter WTP-…
Could we settle the argument by reading the definition of loss aversion to 10 people and asking each person whether the author's experiment measures loss aversion?