Let’s make some other statements about as reasonable as yours (absent further supporting explanation):
The Mughal India of the 16th–19th centuries was not the India of today. That India is long dead. The India of today is basically the British Raj, plus the branding, mix of religions and whatever else the British could salvage.
The Republican party of 1860–1970 was not the Republican party of today. That GOP is long dead. The GOP of today is basically the unholy mix of Kristol & Podhoretz foreign & economic policy with Jerry Falwell & Pat Robertson social policy, plus the branding and whatever panders to fiscal conservative constituents they could salvage from the party’s historic base of support.
The field of economics of 1780–1950 was not the economics of today. That economics is long dead. The economics of today is basically the Friedmanite Chicago school, plus the branding and whatever other assets they could salvage from economics.
Now, in all three of these cases, there’s some little bit of truth behind the wholly oversimplified (to the point of wrongness) analysis. But taking these statements at face value obscures more than it reveals, and reflects a poor understanding of how cultural assimilation works in any institution or society. (And denies evolutionary change, as well; Apple today is not exactly the same as Apple of ca. 2000)
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In short: you’d better have some better analysis to back yourself up here, because as it stands I think your claim is, to the first approximation, false, even if there is a tiny bit of truth to it.