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Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
What does 'Income Equality' look like?
Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
Are we looking at the same graph? The same tool is showing me they were ~20% in 1920, and doesn't have data for earlier.
What does 'Income Equality' look like?
Abolition of class. Democratic control over the means of production.
It's probably somewhere in the industrial zones on the outskirts of cities, but it's not something many people do.
As a software developer I produce code. How would you exert democratic control over means of such production? Will it involve lots of tin foil?
What does 'Income Equality' look like?
In the way the term is used here, income equality is (the inverse of) income inequality. More equal, less equal... it's a measure, not a state. This is like asking what does wealth look like.
Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
Data like these are interesting, but you still need the deep historical context to make sense of what it all means. Of course, for the overall big picture, you couldn't do better than Thomas Piketty's _Capital in the Twenty-First Century_.
Wealth inequality changed drastically between 1900 and now. According to the graph, in 1901, the U.K.'s top 1% controlled 73.8% of the nation's wealth. Today it's about 20%. I wonder what factors caused that change. Wars and emigration maybe have something to do with it?
There may also be a "hidden wealth" effect as people move it offshore; is someone domiciled in the Cayman Islands who lives in the UK for <6mo a year part of the "UK" graph?
What does 'Income Equality' look like?