Earlier quoted context omitted.
I never really understood the argument that taxing spending taxes rich people a lower proportion of their income. Even allowing for investments and savings, rich and poor are all going to spend the money they have in their life (ignore or tax the estates). If there’s a 10% sales tax, then 9.0909...% of your wealth will go to it, no matter how much you make, invest, save.
>rich and poor are all going to spend the money they have in their life (ignore or tax the estates). This is a spherical cow in a vaccum style argument. If you ignore estates and also ignore property and other investments that don't pay sales tax then yes, everyone pays the same sales tax. But the rich will disproportionally own investments and properties that will then be passed on to their heirs. Over any period an…
I still really don’t understand the argument, and I still sort of suspect that it’s fallacious, though I’d enjoy being proven wrong.
It seems to me that given a sales tax, a flat and identical percentage of every individual’s spending will go to the sales tax. If a person is “rich” but it doesn’t translate into spending or their estate, then what does that mean?