Earlier quoted context omitted.
Carl Jung was 11 when the book was published, so perhaps it's the other way around?
I didn't say that book is based on Jung, just that Hyde is maybe personification of Shadow archetype. What's your opinion, could that be true?
'A man who is possessed by his shadow is always standing in his own light and falling into his own traps ... living below his own level': hence, in terms of the story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde, 'it must be Jekyll, the conscious personality, who integrates the shadow ... and not vice versa. Otherwise the conscious becomes the slave of the autonomous shadow'.