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How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

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Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#221

Post by lottin »

TheMagicHorsey wrote: post #114
amelius wrote: post #112

As an outsider, it's strange that nobody here seems to question whether the referendum really makes sense. Forgetting about Catalonia for a moment, isn't it fundamentally amoral that a part of the country where prosperity has (by mere chance) concentrated suddenly wants to split off? Isn't this taking wealth-inequality to the next level? Of course the people in a prosperous part of the country want to split off. Abso…

"by mere chance" Is that your opinion, or do the Catalonians and people outside Spain agree?

It's like saying that the Industrial Revolution started in England by mere chance. In a way it's true, but does that mean that England has a moral obligation to share its wealth with the rest of the world?

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#222

Post by gotbeans »

jarofgreen wrote: post #212

"In the where to vote? page, you are prompted to enter some of your details: DNI (national id), Birth date, Zip code" Wait a second, can someone from the area explain this? Why on earth do they need your ID number just to tell you where to vote? In my country (UK) 99% of the time all you need is a postcode and you can be told your voting place. (I say 99% because there are a few postcodes that are split across differ…

Catalan here.

Your ID is bound to a place to vote based on "where you live" registration. You can't just vote from anywhere.

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#223

Post by faragon »

icebraining wrote: post #211
faragon wrote: post #207

Earlier quoted context omitted.

It is explained in the above (official) link.

Like I said, I've read the above official link. Multiple times, by now. Nowhere do I see a reference to the habitual language. Only to the Primera Llengua, which is Llengua o llengües que la persona ha parlat primer a casa seva. Es considera que aquesta llengua ha estat transmesa familiarment i adquirida en el procés de socialització de l'individu. This is not the habitual language. So, where is it?

The above official link has many sections. Here is the link for the official language poll ("Enquesta d’usos lingüístics de la població 2008"), which includes mother-initial/identification/habitual language details (official data):

http://www.idescat.cat/cat/idescat/publicacions/cataleg/pdfd...

"Initial language" (page 45):

Catalan: 31.6%, Spanish: 55%.

"Identification language" (page 48):

Catalan: 37.2%, Spanish: 46.5%

"Habitual language" (page 51):

Catalan: 35.6%, Spanish: 45.9%

Edit: in my first comment in this thread I spoke from memory. Also, the data from the 2013 poll (official data):

https://www.idescat.cat/cat/idescat/publicacions/cataleg/pdf...

"Initial language" (page 45):

Catalan: 31%, Spanish: 55.1%.

"Identification language" (page 46):

Catalan: 36.4%, Spanish: 47.5%.

"Habitual language" (page 49):

Catalan: 36.3%, Spanish: 50.7%.

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#225

Post by kilburn »

jarofgreen wrote: post #212

"In the where to vote? page, you are prompted to enter some of your details: DNI (national id), Birth date, Zip code" Wait a second, can someone from the area explain this? Why on earth do they need your ID number just to tell you where to vote? In my country (UK) 99% of the time all you need is a postcode and you can be told your voting place. (I say 99% because there are a few postcodes that are split across differ…

For most people that would suffice, but there are exceptions: people who moved recently, people who is not accounted for, etc..

This way, if you are not in the database you know that there's a problem and can ask the authorities to get it fixed before it is too late and you cannot vote.

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#226

Post by lederhosen »

elecbit wrote: post #158
jsdario wrote: post #103

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I may agree it's really hard, but the response is accurate. It is still possible. These kind of restrictions exist to defend people of tyranny. The same restrictions exists in Catalonian Parliament for things such as changing the "Estatut". It is not right for a simple majority to enforce their will over the people their opposition represent. Therefore the referendum is not legal, nor legitimate.

Tyranny is a group not allowing another group to decide what to do. Hear yourself: "the referendum is not legal". Such a nice view of what democracy is. So willing to vote and say goodbye to this bla-bla-bla-this is not legal, that is not legal. Good bye opressors. My deceased family in the war the dicator won will be really happy if we can finally separate. Too many open wounds you have never tried to heal.

So if they succeed to split would you call it tyranny not to let pockets of Castilian speaking minority areas in Catalonia claim independence? Maybe joining Spain? Where would this end (maybe there are pockets within the pockets within the pockets)? It is a practical shitty situation. Do not make it sound SIMPLE. Do not use the word tyranny when it does not apply.

And the rich leaving the poor seems like a right wing thing to do. Maybe Franco would agree that the smaller "upper class" need protection from the tyranny of the poor. Or maybe money is not the biggest part of the equation, maybe it is just a nationalistic disgrace of the same kind that forced Castilian as language onto Basques and Catalans during Franco. Maybe we will get a Franco like situation in Catalonia where minorities are not allowed to teach/speak Castilian. I think that would be a disgrace for every decent person killed by the butchers of Franco and other "nationalists".

And what is the lesson to learn from all this, should all nations start to force minorities to speak the national language just because if we give minorities relative freedom and power they will claim independence? And possibly treat our minorities left bad?

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#227

Post by oh_sigh »

pvaldes wrote: post #204
ukoki wrote: post #75

Earlier quoted context omitted.

So? If they want independence who are we to deny it? If your spouse wants a divorce, if your children wish to disown you — you can't deny them just because it's an inconvenience — it is their right.

This analogy is repeated again and again but is a bad example. A divorce is not "a right", is an agreement regulated by law between two previously married people to put a legal end to the relationship. The true fact is that I can't divorce from my wife without her permit and she could not divorce from me without me agreeing to sign the divorce papers. Does not match the case of one part splitting unilaterally. A bett…

Historically, has the federal government pumped more resources into Catalonia than it extracted from it, or the other way around?

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#228

Post by reeffflio »

I'm genuinely curious which part ipfs solves here? Given that it's still accessed via browser/domain wouldn't they just block the dns or even ip? In which case this is no more resilient than say multiple domains and dns entries and proxying on from there to a central database (which could be run in a jurisdiction over which Spain has little control and which they would have to discover first anyways)

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#229

Post by elecbit »

pepon wrote: post #214
severino wrote: post #193

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Well, that's happening already: half the population does not want to belong to the state. The "democracia" here is you don't vote and never will. What can be worse than that?

No, that is not what is happening. Spain is a state where the majority of the people wants to belong to the state. Catalonia would be a state where half of the people wouldn't want to belong to it. I wonder if the future Catalan government will allow referendums so that such people will be able to split from Catalonia. Besides, not voting is also democracy. Most of the Spanish people don't want to allow these kind of…

I agree that "not voting is also democracy". However I cannot agree about not allowing to vote, which is the case. It's a political issue, which should be solved like it was in Scotland.

In the name of what, a group can decide over another on what is it allowed to do? Because of the frontiers made after conquering when using force?

Re: How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's legal block

#230

Post by icebraining »

faragon wrote: post #223
icebraining wrote: post #211

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Like I said, I've read the above official link. Multiple times, by now. Nowhere do I see a reference to the habitual language. Only to the Primera Llengua, which is Llengua o llengües que la persona ha parlat primer a casa seva. Es considera que aquesta llengua ha estat transmesa familiarment i adquirida en el procés de socialització de l'individu. This is not the habitual language. So, where is it?

The above official link has many sections. Here is the link for the official language poll ("Enquesta d’usos lingüístics de la població 2008"), which includes mother-initial/identification/habitual language details (official data): http://www.idescat.cat/cat/idescat/publicacions/cataleg/pdfd... "Initial language" (page 45): Catalan: 31.6%, Spanish: 55%. "Identification language" (page 48): Catalan: 37.2%, Spanish: 46…

Thank you!

EDIT: Seems like that's the old poll. There's a new one from 2013, in which both Catalan and Spanish grew as the habitual languages. It still doesn't reach 55%, though.

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