Earlier quoted context omitted.
If we have a baseline of 500 year flood level at 0.2% and it's well over that then yes there is a basis for making this claim. I wouldn't make this claim though...
> If we have a baseline of 500 year flood level at 0.2% That's exactly the point. We don't have that baseline, despite acting as if we do. We would need data going back 5,000 years to do that.
But he's going off of what is established, whether that is faulty or not.
So his claim is based on something faulty, but it is based on something.
Your qualm is not with him or his statements, rather with the standards for current 10 year/100 year/500 year estimates.