Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Such models would have to take that into account I believe the liquidity of the asset is inherently taken into account in the price at which the exchange is made.
Why do you believe that, out of curiosity? The reason I think it isn't straightforward to account for is based on several things: it isn't fungible, the purchase date can have little or no relationship to the price, and the means of purchase typically carry other time-based constraints that are also not necessarily related to price (although they can be). Furthermore, the liquidity in a given market may change fairly…
Because the liquidity of an asset is a form of risk.
>The reason I think it isn't straightforward
I don't think it's straightforward either, but that only means individual's valuation might be way off.