Earlier quoted context omitted.
Honestly, after spending months studying the subject, I don't think it's really possible to "get" complex numbers. I just view them as affine transformations written in an unusual notation. I don't think they make sense as anything but a recontextualization of R^2.
The problem with that is that complex numbers initially emerge as roots of polynomials with real coefficients. Getting to affine transformations from there seems a much bigger leap than asserting there is a square root of -1.
Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
111–120 of 148 posts
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#112Earlier quoted context omitted.
So what don't you get? Are you implying there is something more to complex numbers?
What I don't get is why someone would bother with complex numbers and their silly notation when linear algebra would work perfectly fine. I know that in certain contexts they are useful. E.g. to avoid losing information when solving polynomials. But that's a minuscule fraction of their range of application. Nearly every practical use I've seen of complex numbers just use them as a vector representation.
Yet the complex versions are a lot easier to work with, because even in manifestly real formulations, the complex structure is still there, but in disguise:
- http://www.scottaaronson.com/democritus/lec9.html
- http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/32422/qm-without-...
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#113I had never understood how imaginary numbers had any bearing on physics (probably because I'd never been taught). But lately I've thinking about how all mathematics must have some natural physical equivalent or relation. E.g. how does multiplication happen in nature.. what does it mean really to multiply something?...how does this happen in nature? For the most part, we take these things as facts and learn the mechan…
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#114Earlier quoted context omitted.
Speaking of number sets. I never understood why complex numbers are considered one. I mean, yes they "are" a set, but besides that they are completely different. All number sets I learned about did fill some gaps in one dimension, but complex numbers somehow added a new dimension. Like real numbers stood in an entirely different context to rational numbers than complex numbers stood to real numbers.
C (complex numbers) is a field, just like R (real numbers). It's an algebraically closed field, unlike R, so in some sense it's actually the most natural set to call "numbers". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraically_closed_field
In my head a one dimensional thing like R is fundamentally different from a multidimensional thing like C.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#115In Lie theory, given a Lie group, there's a general notion of an "exponential function", which maps elements in the tangent space to the identity to "full" elements of the group. In this case, our group is the unit circle in the complex plane. This is not circular logic, by the way. If a, b are complex numbers on this circle, then |a| = |b| = 1 and so |ab| = |a||b| = 1. The identity of the group is the complex number…
IIRC since the unit circle is a compact Lie group, there is a bi-invariant Riemannian metric whose exponential is the Lie group exponential and we land back on our feet, but the Lie group structure alone is not sufficient.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#116I had never understood how imaginary numbers had any bearing on physics (probably because I'd never been taught). But lately I've thinking about how all mathematics must have some natural physical equivalent or relation. E.g. how does multiplication happen in nature.. what does it mean really to multiply something?...how does this happen in nature? For the most part, we take these things as facts and learn the mechan…
If you invent enough crazy new mathematical constructs, eventually one of them will mirror a natural physical phenomenon. And then a pile of equations collapses into something incredibly simple.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#117Earlier quoted context omitted.
I agree, the suggestion that anyone could/would be able to just throw out everything they know about arithmetic is sketchy at best, and even it's sketchier to make it seem as though a result like Euler's formula could purely be derived from geometric intuition. Sure, it "makes sense" in the video, but I don't think it's possible to truly grok and appreciate the result without having done any calculus. The real joy of…
The Maclaurin trick is what I'd call the "standard proof", and I think it's the source of a lot of the lack of intuition surrounding e^i... It's exactly what you call it, a "trick", where you prove two rabbits are identical by transforming them both into an infinite number of hats. On the one hand, it's all sound logic and algebra, but on the other hand, I certainly don't blame Randall Munroe for seeing that proof in…
Anyways - people have differing levels of magic tolerance, and some people don't have a lot of background in calc, so I don't blame them for looking for other explanations.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#118Earlier quoted context omitted.
I love this answer. For some reason, I've been dreaming about negative numbers lately. I think they deserve their own number set notation.
Speaking of number sets. I never understood why complex numbers are considered one. I mean, yes they "are" a set, but besides that they are completely different. All number sets I learned about did fill some gaps in one dimension, but complex numbers somehow added a new dimension. Like real numbers stood in an entirely different context to rational numbers than complex numbers stood to real numbers.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#119Earlier quoted context omitted.
C (complex numbers) is a field, just like R (real numbers). It's an algebraically closed field, unlike R, so in some sense it's actually the most natural set to call "numbers". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraically_closed_field
I'm not trying to argue for R being more a set than C. In my head a one dimensional thing like R is fundamentally different from a multidimensional thing like C.
Edit: FWIW, I consider the terminology of 'real' vs 'imaginary' completely stupid and misleading. This terminology didn't really make it to other languages, e.g. in Russian it's 'material' vs 'complex' numbers, but they don't use the term 'imaginary'.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#120Earlier quoted context omitted.
I'm not trying to argue for R being more a set than C. In my head a one dimensional thing like R is fundamentally different from a multidimensional thing like C.
Well I was answering the question about why is C considered numbers - it's a field, hence elements of C behave exactly like numbers. Moreover, it's an 'algebraic closure' of R, hence a more natural choice for "all numbers", and it's a maximal one at that (i.e. quaternions and such are no longer fields and don't really behave like numbers, while C still does). Edit: FWIW, I consider the terminology of 'real' vs 'imagi…