Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
11–20 of 148 posts
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#12Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#13It's a nice video but it goes so fast I don't think people who don't already understand this stuff will get it.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#14It's a nice video but it goes so fast I don't think people who don't already understand this stuff will get it.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#15Is it pure chance that this was posted only two or three days after I watched it along with a few other e to pi = -1 videos? Randomness aside. 3blue1brown makes some wonderful math videos that I find really explain the intuitiveness of some of the ideas. I was unfortunately cursed with a math teacher who for whatever reason required us to memorize until we passed the test. Imaginary numbers were taught as "something…
I agree wholeheartedly with the quality assessment of 3blue1brown videos. All mathematics should be clear and intuitive, by definition :)
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#16if you substitute x = iz
you can split the even and odd terms of the infinite series into cos and sin
e^iz = cos z + i sin z
evaluating at z = pi yields
cos pi + i sin pi
-1 + 0i = -1
the exponential function maps the imaginary axis to the unit circle. pi gets mapped to -1.
This shows its true, but the "why" and real understanding requires calculus and the first week of complex analysis. Otherwise you are just parroting a set of facts.
Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#17Re: Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video]
#18It's a nice video but it goes so fast I don't think people who don't already understand this stuff will get it.
Especially goes too fast right when it becomes less obvious.