Earlier quoted context omitted.
In a way, I'm surprised I can read this so easily. Do our brains read by converting text to sounds, and then parsing the sounds?
I think many people do have brains that operate this way, probably because their understanding of language is grounded in conversation as a first experience. I suspect this is the reason you see confusion with "your, you're" and "there, their, they're." I don't parse language in quite that manner, and even in speaking I have a different "mouth feel" for those homonyms. This creates a modest inversion of the idea of s…
I believe in the (somewhat controversial) non-subvocalization-based text processing and even think I do it myself, but I'm wondering if you could describe more about the "mouth feel" issue. Do you mean that you believe that you pronounce them using different phonology (that another person would potentially be able to hear), that your muscles are doing something different but not in a way that makes an auditory difference, or simply that you're subjectively aware of the spelling while speaking but not necessarily in a way that makes a physically-observable difference? Or is it not quite clear which of these is the case?
I think this is an interesting question in the philosophy of language and also in the psychology of reading. (I've thought about this myself but haven't studied the academic literature about it.) If your answer is the first one, I wonder if you'd be willing to make an audio recording of yourself pronouncing these words that might show what difference you experience.
By the way, there are documented cases where spelling differences have created new pronunciation differences that didn't previously exist in the spoken language. Maybe something like that has been happening in your idiolect?