Earlier quoted context omitted.
The rise in government's share of the economy correlates with the rise in the economic ills. What is the basis for thinking there is an inflection point where the correlation reverses?
Economic ills? Well consider that numerous other developed nations have large amounts of state-owned industry and that if anything their economies are stronger than ours.
http://www.moneychimp.com/features/market_cagr.htm
Are there any developed economies with a higher figure?