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Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

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Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#11
post #9

Earlier quoted context omitted.

How do these finitists handle things like the real numbers? Do they just not consider questions that require the notion of infinity?

I gave it a google, and per Math StackOverflow: > One can make statements about π or any other explicitly defined real number, as theorems about a specific sequence of rational approximations https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/501/if-all-sets-wer...

This is correct: given a computation, you're allowed to execute it as far as you like. You're just not allowed to consider it "after executing infinitely many steps". So you're allowed to consider a real number expanded to n decimal places, for any n.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#12
Here is a little anecdote: I met Ludovic Patey at the École normale supérieure that we both entered in 2009. Among our classmates, Ludovic was easily the best programmer and mastered a lot of different technologies (from advanced web stuff down to assembly languages), so we were all quite surprised when he chose to turn to pure mathematics… But then during his PhD he has been immensely successful (invited as keynote speaker to conferences, praised by peers, and an impressive list of journal publications). A few weeks ago, he has been ranked first in the CNRS 2016 recruitment competition, which is internationally competitive. When that competition started he hadn't even graduated from his PhD yet! Which means he (deservedly) bypassed the cumbersome post-doc phase by which virtually all young researchers must go through these days. This time, none of us were surprised :) !

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#13
post #2

Related (a bit of Cantor and Hilbert, no direct relation to Ramsey’s theorem): "How To Count Past Infinity" https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SrU9YDoXE88

How do people produce videos like that? It must be very expensive: shooting, pictures, music, all these animations, montage. It can't be done a hobbyist?

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#14
post #2

Related (a bit of Cantor and Hilbert, no direct relation to Ramsey’s theorem): "How To Count Past Infinity" https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SrU9YDoXE88

How do people produce videos like that? It must be very expensive: shooting, pictures, music, all these animations, montage. It can't be done a hobbyist?

Vsauce is a hobbyist. As he got more popular and ad revenue came in, he could afford better cameras, mics, and props. Hes actually the most successful of the VsauceX (X=1,2,3,4) channels but still keeps them as a network because they are all friends. Honestly, YouTubing like anything else, takes effort more than anything. Some of the most successful channels used a smartphone camera for well past a million subscribers. And part of the rub is that there are a ton of good channels with very little success. Good art and entertainment is borne out of desire to share, not desire to bear. At least in my opinion. Because there will always be garbage to cater to garbage.

I should mention, most of the editing can be easily done in After Effects with a couple weeks of training. Its really amazing how accessible having your own syndication is these days. I am not interesting enough or entertaining enough so I leave it to those who are. Sticking to HN threads so I can hide my ugly mug ;-)

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#15
> The boundary does not pass between some huge finite number and the next, infinitely large one. Rather, it separates two kinds of mathematical statements: “finitistic” ones, which can be proved without invoking the concept of infinity, and “infinitistic” ones, which rest on the assumption — not evident in nature — that infinite objects exist.

Let Y = some ridiculously huge finite number. The notion that ∞ = Y + 1 has to be one of the most insidious defects in reasoning. Even to acknowledge the defect by dismissing it is almost like saying things could have turned out that way when they _never_ could.

Finite means limited or bounded or quantifiable. Infinite means unlimited or unbounded or unquantifiable. They are two wholly separate classes of things. Another way to say this is discrete versus continuous (in nature).

Imagine I said that I could bridge the coloured/non-coloured divide. What could I possibly mean by that. It would mean that I have found a way to talk about both coloured things and non-coloured things that applies to both class of things.

Put another way. Imagine I separate coloured things into green ones and not green ones. Both subclasses belong to the class of coloured things. What class then do the subclasses of finite things and non-finite things belong to? Negation constructs the distinction, negation _is_ the bridge in a way and all the could be said of both subclasses of things is that they are both things. (Which, to be clear, is not saying very much at all, is it?) If those things are numbers then all we are saying is that both things are numbers, if both things are procedures then all we are saying is that both things are procedures. And so on.

If I'm thinking about this properly then the paper is trying to more precisely define the term "countably". That's as most as it can do. To say otherwise is not just vastly overstating what the paper is about but outright misleading.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#16

> The boundary does not pass between some huge finite number and the next, infinitely large one. Rather, it separates two kinds of mathematical statements: “finitistic” ones, which can be proved without invoking the concept of infinity, and “infinitistic” ones, which rest on the assumption — not evident in nature — that infinite objects exist. Let Y = some ridiculously huge finite number. The notion that ∞ = Y + 1 ha…

You're not thinking about this properly. There are some facts about finite objects which simply cannot be proved without reasoning about infinite objects - for example, the well-definedness of the TREE function. These facts are true if you have access to infinite objects, but not necessarily if you don't.

This paper shows that a certain class of statements about finite objects, which we knew were true by virtue of reasoning about a certain infinite object, in fact remain true if you're restricted only to reasoning about finite objects.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#17
Great article, very well written and actually understandable without hunting down mathematical definitions.

I think it is quite cool that people are still hunting down the various different incarnations of infinity and are able to prove deep results like this.

On the other hand, I don't think that these questions are as essential as they are made out to be. How do we know that everything finite is on unshakable foundations? Doesn't even thinking about what that statement means involve reasoning about infinities? Let's just accept that nothing ever is really unshakable and let's use the tools that will get the job at hand done.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#18
As a noob, I'm having a hard time grasping why the Ramsey pairing is interesting: If you pair up every member of an infinite set with every member of that same infinite set, of course you'll get an infinite subset for almost every predicate about a pairing, just by virtue of starting from an infinite superset.

It seems like the theorem would be interesting if it said something about the "magnitude" of the subset, not just that it's infinite.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#19
post #9
post #6

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Not quite, I think, although I haven't read the original paper. There are some mathematicians who doubt that there is an infinite object (we call such mathematicians "finitist"). For such mathematicians, there is a large chunk of the mathematical literature they just can't use, because it relies inherently on the existence of an infinite set. Ramsey's theorem for pairs looks like it relies on the existence of an infi…

How do these finitists handle things like the real numbers? Do they just not consider questions that require the notion of infinity?

In high-school calculus (if you've taken that), you apply things like "d/dx" which LOOKS like it is just a fraction, dividing "d" by "d times x". The notation was first dreamed up by mathematicians who were thinking "but if we keep making the d-slices really REALLY small we would move from the discrete approximation to the formula for the correct continuous answer".

Unfortunately, while SOME such formulas worked (the ones you learned in calculus - stuff like the chain rule), other formulas generated using the same kind of reasoning ("just imagine that d becomes infinitely small") come up with answers that are nonsensical or just wrong. How can we know when it's OK to just say "let things get infinitely small" and when it gives bogus answers?

The solution, which is taught in high-school calculus, was the "epsilon-delta" formulation. Instead of saying "let d become infinitely small" (a statement that may just be nonsense), say "I will prove that for ANY small epsilon (greater than 0) I can find a delta > 0 such that for values of x closer than delta, the error will be less than epsilon". That statement doesn't require an infinity to exist anywhere -- it is just a statement about particular finite numbers. And we can build calculus on such principles.

This isn't an EXACT analogy to your question about real numbers, but it uses the same type of reasoning, and I'm hoping the analogy is in terms of mathematical reasoning you are already familiar with.

Re: Mathematicians Bridge Finite-Infinite Divide

#20
post #18

As a noob, I'm having a hard time grasping why the Ramsey pairing is interesting: If you pair up every member of an infinite set with every member of that same infinite set, of course you'll get an infinite subset for almost every predicate about a pairing, just by virtue of starting from an infinite superset. It seems like the theorem would be interesting if it said something about the "magnitude" of the subset, not…

It's hard to know what you're finding uninteresting/confusing from your description. Perhaps it would help to note that every possible pairing is given a colour, and in your infinite subset every possible pairing within that subset has the same colour. To me this is quite counter-intuitive.

There is a somewhat enlightening comparison to be made between Ramsey on pairs and the result that every real sequence x_n has a monotonic subsequence. You get this result as a corollary by colouring a pair of natural numbers aInterestingly, the Ramsey theorem can be extended to three, four or any number of colours. I believe you can use this to show that any real sequence has either a convex or concave subsequence, but I'll omit the details :p

There's also a delicate balance between the infinite and finite going on. Clearly, with an infinite number of colours you could get a colouring without a monochromatic subset. More surprisingly perhaps, if you colour the infinite subsets of the natural numbers red or blue, then there exist colourings for which there is no monochromatic subset.

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