Making Insider Trading Legal
11–20 of 169 posts
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#12Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#13Therefore, free and legal insider trading would actually increase fairness in the market.
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#14If "material nonpublic information" is illegal to trade on, then the entire job of the intelligent investor ceases to exist. It becomes illegal to do thorough research. So of course the source of the information matters. I'm sympathetic to the argument that it's bad to take illegally obtained data and pass it along in a don't ask, don't tell manner to avoid prosecution. But that Dell data? The guy's job at Dell was t…
"material nonpublic information" is a term of art. It means internal company information that is relevant to understanding the future financial performance of the company. Research based on outside information wouldn't be material nonpublic information.
If someone else deduces the same information, does my copy stop being nonpublic? Or was I mistaken in thinking it was nonpublic at all, since someone could deduce the same information?
If I'm watching a company's delivery road from across the street, is all that info public even though it's only available to me and five other people in the world?
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#15Earlier quoted context omitted.
> It becomes illegal to do thorough research. Ridiculous. Having access to information others don't is privilege, not thoroughness. You can be just as thorough as you want, so long as others are not prevented from being likewise. Without that, capital markets cease to be open. That way lies oligarchy.
Not sure why you're getting downvoted. You're absolutely correct. Having access to insider information is about knowing people on the inside, or having some sort of special access to that information. By definition, it gives the person unfair advantage over others in the market.
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#16Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#17Earlier quoted context omitted.
"material nonpublic information" is a term of art. It means internal company information that is relevant to understanding the future financial performance of the company. Research based on outside information wouldn't be material nonpublic information.
Are you saying that "nonpublic" by itself implies that I got the information from an insider? If someone else deduces the same information, does my copy stop being nonpublic? Or was I mistaken in thinking it was nonpublic at all, since someone could deduce the same information? If I'm watching a company's delivery road from across the street, is all that info public even though it's only available to me and five othe…
I think it is also clearly the case that concrete insider knowledge will be considered differently than deductions.
This goes on and on about the meaning of the term:
http://www.investopedia.com/exam-guide/cfa-level-1/ethics-st...
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#18Same article posted yesterday: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=10483032
I'm sorry you didn't get upvotes out of randomness or timing but it doesn't help to link a previous submission with no comments.
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#19Earlier quoted context omitted.
Not sure why you're getting downvoted. You're absolutely correct. Having access to insider information is about knowing people on the inside, or having some sort of special access to that information. By definition, it gives the person unfair advantage over others in the market.
"insider trading isn't about fairness, it's about theft"
Re: Making Insider Trading Legal
#20This quote is interesting. I know that in some countries (including my own,) dealing in stolen goods is in fact illegal, regardless of whether or not you knew the goods were stolen in the first place. The onus lies on the buyer of the goods to remove doubts of where the goods came from, which often amounts to simply asking the reseller for a receipt. If you're given one which is bogus, you can claim ignorance and whoever you bought it from would be guilty of fraud as well as dealing in stolen goods.
Now, I don't know what the law says about dealing in stolen physical goods in the US, but if it's anything like the above then why should illegally obtained information be any different? Shouldn't it be reasonable then to ask whoever is dealing in this information to ask for a receipt, as it were?