Given a caller, Alice, an intermediary, and a recipient, Bob, is it possible for Alice to call the intermediary and be connect with Bob, while charging Alice for the call(s) and showing Bob only the intermediary caller ID?
Ask HN: Question for the PBX/Phone Geeks
1–4 of 4 posts
Re: Ask HN: Question for the PBX/Phone Geeks
#2Yes It's doable. does the charge have to be on demand..while the call is being made? or can it be pre-paid? Do you want the caller to be charged directly on their phone bill or can they pay somewhere else? Those questions would need to be answered I'd guess. But contact me and I can help you with this.
Re: Ask HN: Question for the PBX/Phone Geeks
#3Yes It's doable. does the charge have to be on demand..while the call is being made? or can it be pre-paid? Do you want the caller to be charged directly on their phone bill or can they pay somewhere else? Those questions would need to be answered I'd guess. But contact me and I can help you with this.
Thanks for the comment, Sam.
I couldn't find your contact information on your listed website.
Re: Ask HN: Question for the PBX/Phone Geeks
#4Yes It's doable. does the charge have to be on demand..while the call is being made? or can it be pre-paid? Do you want the caller to be charged directly on their phone bill or can they pay somewhere else? Those questions would need to be answered I'd guess. But contact me and I can help you with this.
Thanks for the comment, Sam. I couldn't find your contact information on your listed website.
Email me at shahsaumil {at} {gmail dot com}