Earlier quoted context omitted.
Even if it is so (and we can talk for hours on the validity of this or that data) how do you find the fact that there are enough damned means of production to feed everyone and it's been so for decades now? Also how do you like the fact that there are now about 50-60 MILLION people in US that get food stamps. Or the fact that the wages for most of the western world are falling for 30 years now? ... Whatever.
Unfortunately, it is a basic ecological principle that an increase in food results in an increase in population, and humans are not exempt from that. Yes, we have enough food to feed everybody. We have (usually) had enough, not just for decades, but for ten thousand years—ever since agriculture took off, and even more so since the industrial revolution and the Haber process. However, food production is not enough to…
2. Growth of population declines as countries get more developed, while the food availibility increases. That was true in Europe, USA, Japan, China.
I don't see a reason why this shouldn't work the same for remaining undeveloped countries.
So I don't think your ecological principle works on human.