The questions involving "90% chance of $1000 or 100% chance of $900" always bother me. I never understand why economists think that a rational actor would consider them equivalent; they're not , unless you are making that choice many many times. But if I'm given that chance once (which is presumably what most participants assume, since that's not a choice that comes up often in one's life), it's really then a choice…
My AI professor had a great explanation for this: * lottery B = $900 * lottery A = 0.9 chance of $1000 and 0.1 chance of 0 + feeling stupid.
* lottery A = 0.9 chance of $1000 + feeling somewhat smart and 0.1 chance of 0 + feeling very stupid
more accurate?