Or maybe the plan was to have Germany attack the Soviet Union from the beginning. They could have easily defeated Germany prior to the war, had they tried.
The Poles beat the Soviets between the wars : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish%E2%80%93Soviet_War The Germans rolled the Poles in weeks at the start of WWII. It's far from clear that without US help the Soviets could have defeated the Germans.
Apparently this annoyed people. Note I'm not American.
This article talks about just how much the US supplied the Soivets :
Germany got extraordinarily lucky at many points between 1938 and 1941 (just prior to Barbarossa), but two of its most decisive lucky breaks happened in 1939 and 1938. First break: in 1938 when Hitler was essentially gifted the Sudetenland by the Munich accords and by the inaction in an absurdly limp response from the Czech government. This particular region of Czechoslovakia was deeply protected by heavy military de…
Not only the coup against Hitler was a real possibility if Britain defended Czechoslovakia, but also the british knew about it first hand. Kleist, a german emissary of the anti-Hitler faction in the Wehrmacht, was secretly visiting Britain just before the Munich agreement talking about the coup plans with MI6: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wilhelm_Canaris#Munich_Agreeme...
Yet they still pushed through the atrocious, worthless Munich agreement that so completely eviscerated Czechoslovakia, despite knowing not only that the Nazi war machine had no realistic hope of major conquest against fully intact Czech territory, but also that the High command of the Wehrmacht itself was near mutiny at the idea of trying such a thing. Had Chamberlain simply shown more spine at that point, there very likely never would have been a genocidal Nazi conquest of Europe. I know that the what-ifs of history are full of unknown unknowns but given what did happen, It's hard to imagine a rejection of German demands in 1938 possibly having lead to as bad, let alone worse..
Not only the coup against Hitler was a real possibility if Britain defended Czechoslovakia, but also the british knew about it first hand. Kleist, a german emissary of the anti-Hitler faction in the Wehrmacht, was secretly visiting Britain just before the Munich agreement talking about the coup plans with MI6: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wilhelm_Canaris#Munich_Agreeme...
Yet they still pushed through the atrocious, worthless Munich agreement that so completely eviscerated Czechoslovakia, despite knowing not only that the Nazi war machine had no realistic hope of major conquest against fully intact Czech territory, but also that the High command of the Wehrmacht itself was near mutiny at the idea of trying such a thing. Had Chamberlain simply shown more spine at that point, there very…
Probably he wanted to be in good terms with Hitler and get it closer to attack the USSR. Chamberlain had a very antisoviet stance (even in contrast with other cabinet members) and maybe he reasonably thought Hitler would not overextend by also opening a west front. In that line of reason, having Hitler in the government and not disturb it with a coup was a positive for him.
Which allies are you referring to? those that made up the dominion of the empire such as Canada and Australia? then yes. But they can only really supply some troops and resources. The UK needed France and they were not nearly as cooperative with each other as you might think, and France had little to no interest in an offensive war.
> The UK needed France If the war started early, perhaps. But later on, not really. Britain and the dominion had one hell of a lot of resources. There is a good book on this topic by David Edgerton titled ‘Britain’s War Machine’. It’s largely debunking the idea of the plucky underdog and shows the great strength of Britain relatively to Germany. It was more a question of how long it would take Germany to fall, rather…
An invasion of mainland Europe was tough. Not only logistically but also geopolitical, as hard is might be to believe there could be a large push back from an unilateral British invasion of Europe.
Also the UK had great access to men and resources, definitely better on the latter than Germany. But did it have industrial capacity necessary is the question. Most of the manufacturing was concentrated in mainland UK, by design as that's how the empire made its wealth. The UK had to purchase a lot of both naval and land assets from the US.