The article confuses me. Bloom thought both that Shakespeare invented humanity, but also that literature was primarily about the aesthetic pleasure for the reader? I am not an expert in literature or criticism, but it seems like there's something missing from the article to explain that gap. (I'm sorry to hear of his passing, of course, and I don't mean this as disrespectful in any way.)
It’s a little—just a little—like the “art for art’s sake” movements, where the slogan says less about what art is for and mostly insists that art isn’t about its conventionally understood purposes (to morally educate, to record, etc.) and also not about the next dozen theories that might occur to you.