Can someone else confirm to me that I'm not crazy and the central distinction of this article is totally bogus? Reasoning: BitCoin isn't, to my knowledge, a scheme where some private identifier is stored inside each "coin" whose ownership is revealed with a zero-knowledge proof; it's simply one where you have public and private keys and use those private keys to sign transactions saying "Take X1 out of my public key…
The usefulness to a launderer seems more the simplicity of exchanging a large amount of coins for fiat currency in a single transaction, rather than going through an exchange or sending lots of complex small transactions through a mixer and figuring out how to exchange all of that back without going through an exchange w/ KYC