The wealth gap in 2012 US is larger than it was in pre-revolution France. https://www.theatlantic.com/business/archive/2012/09/us-inco...
I am not sure this is a fair comparison. Wouldn't this be true if we compare any pre-industrial society with any post-industrial society?
The post-industrial US dipped as low as ~1300 or ~1650 Europe, but is now back to levels Europe only reached in 1750, well on track to repeating the rising inequality during industrialization. Sweden is still at 1280/1600 Europe numbers, better than 1960s USA.
Actually it probably has risen a bit more since then since those are 2010 numbers, hence the comparison of US numbers to the French Revolution
1: https://cepr.org/voxeu/columns/top-rich-europe-long-run-hist...
2: https://www.blogscapitalbolsa.com/media/images/69b536a604624...