The real scandal here happened in 1959. When Congress passed created 501(c)(4)s, the law said that (emphasis is mine): "Civic leagues or organizations not organized for profit but operated exclusively for the promotion of social welfare". In other words, 501(c)(4)s were intended to be allowed to spend NO MONEY on politics. However, a 1959 IRS regulation decided that "exclusively" (0%) really meant "primarily"(up to 4…
As I understand it, the US method of interpretation of legislation is to take the opinions of government agencies more or less at face value. After all, they're the experts, so to speak. This is distinct from the Supreme Court's power to interpret the Constitution. To me it seems like an abrogation of the independent role of the judicial arm. In Australia, for example, the courts jealously defend their rights and pow…
I guess I'm not getting what you're getting at? When the judiciary interprets the intent of a law, whose opinion besides the government agency do you think they should consider with equal influence? And if you're going to say, "the public"...well, I think that is the case in the U.S. too. So how are you gauging whether Australia's courts give fairer weight to the public than America's courts?